Date: Sun, 27 Jun 1999 10:47:17 -0500
From: Thomas C. Bartlett
<T.Bartlett@latrobe.edu.au>
Unfortunately, I can't find Frank Hsiao's message in my mail reader.
But nomenclature is, of course, a matter of universal sensitivity.
What's in a name?
, indeed! Confucius said it very well, Get
the names right!
Names define connectedness and disconnectedness,
especially important in ancestor worship. In reply to Uradyn E
Bulag's interesting comments:
1) I think that, conceptually (if not orthographically) speaking,
hyphenated ethnic references do exist in China, for example the one
that UEB mentions: Zhonghua Minzu
, which I propose to rewrite
as Zhong-Hua Minzu
for the present. That's definitely a
hyphenated concept in Chinese, as is the affiliated term,
Hua-Xia
, which were originally two separate ancient ethnonyms.
These hyphenated terms exist at the highest level of generality, like
the reference to Yan-Huang
in Yan-Huang zisun
(descendants of Yandi and the Yellow Emperor
, i.e.,
Chinese
).
Why do I call them hyphenated concepts? Precisely because they don't
exist in the natural experience of ordinary people, and are
artifically invented by scholars and propagandists attempting to
create a cult of national identity at the highest conceptual level.
Most people are overwhelmingly concerned with immediately understood
types of social affiliation like family, native place, specific ethnic
group, profession, place of residence, etc. The level of identity
named by the hyphenated terms is not naturally experienced by anyone
whose mind has not been influenced through an abstract,
intellectualized training process to make that identification. So I
would be very interested to know, as UEB asks, in what manner and
degree the members of specific ethnic groups identify with the
Zhonghua minzu
.
2) Why is it common in English to say Han Chinese
(usually not
hyphenated in spelling, in my observation), but not to say Mongol
Chinese
, or Tibetan Chinese
, etc.? I think that is because
the officially defined ethnic makeup of China
has changed so
drastically and so recently. As Europeans experienced the reality of
the Qing dynasty in the 19th century, there was China Proper
,
and beyond that there were the regions pacified but not administered
by the Manchu empire based in Beijing. Those regions included
Mongolia, Xinjiang, and Tibet, and they were part of the Qing empire,
but they were not regarded as part of China
; not by the Han,
not by the Manchus, not by the Mongols, Uighurs, Tibetans, nor by the
Koreans, Russians, Japanese, or Europeans. Republican China provided
preliminary conceptual initiatives to change all that, basically by
identifying the map of modern China
with the Qing empire at its
height. After 1949, the Communists did not just recover
those
areas, they asserted an altogether unprecedented level of control and
integration over them, by utilizing previously unavailable modern
technologies. That is new only in the last 2 generations, since 1949.
I have on the table next to my computer at this moment the 1984
Zhonghua Shuju edition of Wei4 Yuan2's Sheng4 Wu3 Ji4
; the
author's preface is dated Daoguang 22 (1842). On page 93, he writes,
The 17 provinces [inherited from the Ming] and the region of the
eastern 3 provinces [
Manchuria
] are 'Zhongguo'. Westward of
'Zhongguo' is the region of the Hui, to the south is Tibet, to the
east is Korea, and to the north is Russia. Their people are all
indigenous residents of those regions, and their countries are all
states with cities. As for those who do not have cities, have no
palaces and buildings, do not practice agriculture, who live in tents
under the sky and roam across the grasslands, only the Mongols,
Dzungars, and residents of Qinghai are such. So (Chinese) historical
sources refering to foreign peoples all define their boundaries by the
location of their permanently established states or their nomadic
territories.
In 1840 Wei Yuan classed Mongolia, Xinjiang, and Tibet in the same
category with Russia and Korea, as foreign buffer
states,
outside Zhongguo
. Why? Because the nature of the Qing
dynasty's relations with Mongolia, Xinjiang, and Tibet was akin to
Qing relations with Russia and Korea, and was fundamentally different
from the nature of Qing rule over the 17 provinces and the eastern
3 provinces
, which made up Zhongguo
as defined at that
time. Basically, there were treaties calling for ceremonial
subordination, but the Qing exerted no direct control over their
internal affairs. That classification of the status of Mongolia,
Xinjiang, and Tibet is an embarrassment to those propagandists today
who like to say that places like Tibet have always been part of
China
.
China has been through a great historiographical revolution in the last 50 years, and most people in the West have not integrated that into their consciousness of Chinese ethnic affairs; that consciousness has, by and large, been defined by the generally understood situation in the 19th century, i.e., the Chinese are simply the Han, full stop. Since the Chinese government is very sensitive to Westerners' habitual preconceptions about China, therefore one major goal of the Chinese tourist industry, apart from making money, is to nurture foreign visitors' awareness that China has many minorities, especially by taking tourists to places like Yunnan, where the minorities are both conspicuous, charming, and docile.
3) As regards keeping English analytic terms and categories separate
from the indigenous
ones, we certainly don't need to fear that
won't happen; it's inevitable. The two languages will certainly never
correspond exactly, perhaps not even approximately. The problem is
just the opposite, at least for us on the anglophone side: that we not
mistake the image of Chinese reality created in our minds by our own
terms and concepts for the reality experienced by people on the
sinophone/sinographic side. There is an altogether strong enough
drift in western discussions about China to remain self-indulgently
mired in our own rhetoric without coming directly to grips with the
indigenous realities conveyed through the Chinese language.
Thomas Bartlett
La Trobe University
Melbourne, Australia
Date: Mon, 28 Jun 1999 10:50:20 -0700
From: jsbnp@cc.tnca.edu.tw
With reference to the post from Frank Hsiao on June 23:
China is the northen European wway of pronouncing that the Romans spelled Cina (pronounced Chee-na) - the Roman way of pronouncing Qin (during China's Qin dynasty 3rd c bce).
The Japanese in the pst centuries called the Chinese Kara, and (To-o [long o] for Tang), in the 19th c when they went Western they followed the Europoid China, pronouncing it Shee-na (which two Chinese graphs read back in Mandarin sound Zhi-na).
So using a sinicized reading of the Japanese transcription of a European rendition of the Roman way of calling the Qin people - seems pointless.
Surely the Chinese have a name for themsleves?
In fact they do. In Taiwan they like to say Hua2-Xia4. or Hua-ren, for the peole of the Florid Kingdom, and Xi for the earliest dynasty proven...
Joan Stanley-Baker, jsbnp@mail.tnca.edu.tw
Date: Mon, 28 Jun 1999 18:39:44 -0500
From: Nicholas Tustin <nikosjt@pantheon.yale.edu>
Dear Colleagues,
I am slightly puzzled by the post [above], in that the Romans usually refer in Classical texts to the Chinese as the Seres (i.e the people of silk cf. seri-culture), and even if they did call China Cina, it would have been pronounced more as Keena (i.e. Qin), simply because in Latin the initial C was invariably pronounced hard = K. Please can somebody give a reference for the use of Cina as a form?
Best wishes,
Nick Tustin
Date: Tue, 29 Jun 1999 18:39:24 -0500
From: GCook69833@aol.com
Please correct me if I am wrong. I am an India hand
, but I did
my undergraduate work in Classics, & I have translated several
books from Latin in different periods of its development. The hard
c(k) is of the Classical period. I don't know when Latin speakers
became aware of China, but, if it was in the late antiquity, a less
harsh c
is plausible.
Geoffrey Cook
Date: Tue, 29 Jun 1999 21:16:09 -0500
From: Nicholas Tustin <nikosjt@pantheon.yale.edu>
Dear All,
I must confess that I don't remember denying that SIN- was a valid
Latinate root, although it depends how late
a given author is,
as to to whether you consider it Classical, Vulgar etc. Latin, nor,
incidentally am I unfamiliar with the later authors, since my
professional field is, in fact, Classical Philology. My point was
simply that the Romans did not use a word like Cina, and could not
have pronounced it as Ch-ina, since the initial C in isolation is
always pronounced hard as K. Hence the German derivation of Kaiser
from Caesar etc. There is no doubt whatever that the Romans had some
awareness of the fact of a silk-producing people off in the eastern
end of the world beyond the Parthians and their successors the
Sassanid Persians. They experienced a rather severe inbalance of
payments due to imports of Chinese silk, and this led to periodic
attempts to impose austerity measures, since the outflow of Roman
silver was sufficiently high as to cause problems. It is, however,
very douvtful whether they had any real concept of China
beyond
that. One might remember that during the Han dynasty one intrepid
Chinese expedition got to the shores of the Caspian sea - and then
turned back, having been told by the natives that what lay beyond was
a land infested by every type of unpleasant entity. Doubtless the
Rome of the Emperor Nerva would have been surprised to learn of its
new identity!
Best wishes to all,
Nick Tustin
Dear Geoffrey,
I do agree that pronounciation may have shifted between Classical and
Later Latin, but I would have thought that a softening to an s
would be more likely than ch
. In practice, words that start
Ch
in Latin seem almost invariably to be loanwords from Greek,
or, rarely, from Germanic roots, and it should be from them that we
derive anything like the sound of Ch
in China. However,
whatever the possibilities,I have not yet found anyone who uses
Cina
as a word, and if there is a genuine reference out there,
I would very much like to know!
Anyway, philologically yours,
Nick Tustin
Date: Wed, 30 Jun 1999 17:49:02 -0500
From: kaim@server.poli-sci.saitama-u.ac.jp (kaim)
Summary:
1. Joan Stanley-Baker's explanation of the origin of the English word China is incorrect.
2. JS-B's suggestion that using the English word 'China', in English rather than an Chinese word is pointless, itself seems insufficiently thought out.
Details:
Joan Stanley-Baker wrote:
> China is the northen European wway of pronouncing that the
> Romans spelled Cina (pronounced Chee-na) - the Roman way of
> pronouncing Qin (during China's Qin dynasty 3rd c bce).
My apologies, but I must take issue with this.
Firstly, in Latin (as pronounced by the Romans, rather than later peoples) the letter 'c' was pronounced as a hard sound like our 'k', as in the English word 'kin'.
Secondly, I have no recollection (from my Latin days, however, these are some time ago and I am prepared to be corrected by someone who remains involved and _knowledgeable_) of a Latin word 'Cina', however pronounced.
Thirdly, I may be odd, but I generally include Germany in northern Europe. The word in that language (sp: 'China') is pronounced 'shina', again with a long 'i'). JS-B's 'northern European way of pronouncing' appears rather influenced by current English pronunciation.
For those with a classical interest, of course the Romans did used to
say: falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus
.
JS-B, and anyone else interested in this topic, may be better off directing their attention a little further east. I do not have the sources to hand, but I would not be surprised if 'China' came to English through Persian where, I seem to recall, the equivalent word was 'chini' (with both vowels long [but I don't have macrons] i.e., /cheenee/). On a slightly different tack, I recall from my own days studying Arabic, in Arabic China is 'as-Sin' or, if you get rid of the definite article, 'sin' (pron., /seen/). From this came the English word element ''Sin-', as in 'Sinitic', etc.
Then again, the OED (which has probably researched this a bit more closely than either JS-B or I have) tells me,
Not a native Chinese name, but found in Skr. as China about the Christian era, and in various modified forms employed by other Asiatic peoples. In Marco Polo Chin, in Barbosa (1516) and Garcia de Orta (1563) China. So in Eng. in Eden 1555. (The origin of the name is still a matter of debate. See Babylonian & Or; Recd. I. Nos. 3 and 11.)
> The Japanese in the past centuries called the Chinese Kara,
> and (To-o [long o] for Tang), in the 19th c when they went
> Western they followed the Europoid China, pronouncing it
> Shee-na (which two Chinese graphs read back in Mandarin
> sound Zhi-na).
And yet, the character in Japanese used to write 'Qin' is pronounced
/shin/. JS-B provides no evidence that this pronunciation originates
in the C19, when she says the Japanese went Western
(sic). Are
there any palaeographers who can confirm the Japanese pronunciation of
the relevant character before JS-B's 19th c when... [the Japanese]
went Western
?
> So using a sinicized reading of the Japanese transcription of
> a European rendition of the Roman way of calling the Qin people
> - seems pointless.
>
> Surely the Chinese have a name for themsleves?
Of course, _in Chinese_. But then, if we are going to privilege the names various peoples give themselves and their countries in their own languages when we are using English, what about Germany (Deutschland), Austria (Osterreich), Finland (Suomi), Greece (Hellas), Albania (Shqipnija), and so on, and on, and on...? (I use European examples simply to try and minimise gratuitous accusations of racism.)
The whole idea that we should use the
name (which one?) that
the Chinese
(which people?) are said to use in the Chinese
language
(which language, or if you prefer, which dialect?) in
English, apart from the problematic issues alluded to in my three
parentheses, does seem more than a little precious.
R. Kaim
National Graduate Institute for Policy Studies
Tokyo
Date: Wed, 30 Jun 1999 17:49:02 -0500
From: jlwitzleben@cuhk.edu.hk (Larry Witzleben)
> However, whatever the possibilities, I have not yet found
> anyone who uses Cina
as a word, and if there is a genuine
> reference out there, I would very much like to know!
>
> Anyway, philologically yours,
> Nick Tustin
>
Well, I suppose you are looking for historical usages, but to Indonesian
speakers, the country is indeed Cina.
Regards, Larry Witzleben
Larry Witzleben
Music Department
Chinese University of Hong Kong
jlwitzleben@cuhk.edu.hk
phone (852) 2609-6717 (office), 2603-7333 (home)
fax 2603-7333
my home page is at: http://www.cuhk.edu.hk/mus/lw.personal.html
Date: Wed, 30 Jun 1999 17:49:02 -0500
From: Melvin Thatcher <mpt@burgoyne.com>
'Cina' is used for China in bahasa Indonesia.
Mel Thatcher